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Are we all certain that readiness in some "European" quarters (Poland-Lithuania and points west) to consider Russians as somewhat "Tatar" does not go back to the XVII c.? Are we certain of this? Didn't even Soloviev (and following him Kliuchevsky) pick up on Kysil (or was it Pasek?) comparing the religiousity of Cossacks to Muslims, despite the formal Orthodoxy? I have a feeling, despite Marshal Poe's excellent point about crude Orientalism, that the "scratch a Russian ... " thing is at least 350 years old. d g >>>>>> Date: Fri, 11 Dec 1998 15:05:50 -0500 (EST) From: Gregory Scott Rogers <grogers@indiana.edu> I agree with Marshall Poe that the Russian-Tatar axiom is a "bit of nasty orientalism" which has not been stamped out yet. * * *
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