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Does anyone know of any discussion -- judicial opinion or scholarly authority or otherwise -- discussing why the Ineligibility Clause is expressly limited to "civil" office, whereas the Incompatibility Clase -- which immediately follows -- is not limited to "civil" office, but extends to "any" office, presumably civil and military? If anyone has views not found in extant literature, I'd be interesed in your thoughts. Article I, Section 6, Clause 2: No Senator or Representative shall, during the Time for which he was elected, be appointed to any civil Office under the Authority of the United States, which shall have been created, or the Emoluments whereof shall have been encreased during such time; and no Person holding any Office under the United States, shall be a Member of either House during his Continuance in Office. Seth Barrett Tillman Independent Scholar