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Robert Mosher has submitted a thoughtful reply to my post along with a query. Here are my thoughts: The Vietnamese Communists sponsored, armed and incited the Khmer Rouge so they bear some responsibility for the slaughter that followed. In Vietnam itself, the Communists summarily executed 100,000 individuals. I would call that a bloodbath. In addition they drove or inspired in excess of a million individuals to flee. Half a million of these people perished. This has to be put in historical context. In a thousand years of conquest by other nations like China, there never was such an exodus from Vietnam. David Horowitz > From: Robert Mosher <firstname.lastname@example.org> > > David Horowitz points out that "everyone who wanted the US out of the war > felt in one way or another that it would be ok if the Communists won and > that there wouldn't be a bloodbath. They were wrong on both counts." > > I would have to agree with the first part of his statement with the quibble > that I believe that there probably individuals amongst those who wanted the > US out of the war that did not in fact take that thought to the conclusion > Mr. Horowitz sets forth. I am admittedly unable to offer any names but I > had enough conversations with people about the war at the time to conclude > that at least some of those opposed to the war did not in fact reach the > same conclusion Mr. Horowitz sets out., > > However, the remainder of the statement begs for "bloodbath" to be defined. > If we treat the events in Southeast Asia as a single communist victory then > events in Cambodia would probably warrant a conclusion that the victory was > followed by a bloodbath. But if we treat the events separately and > distinguish between the communist victory in Laos, the victory in Cambodia, > and the victory in (South) Viet Nam, can we in fact declare that those in > Viet Nam and Laos were followed by bloodbaths? I would argue that having > set aside events in Cambodia, then we need another definition of bloodbath > before we might be able to agree to apply that term elsewhere in Southeast > Asia. > > In Viet Nam, of course, we have the example of Viet Cong actions in the old > imperial capital of Hue during the 1968 Tet Offensive. If we extrapolate > from the VC effort there to eliminate real and potential opponents of the > communists might we then use that as a measure of what happened after April > 29, 1975? Did the actions of the Hanoi government in the former territory > of South Vietnam to eliminate real and potential opponents (including some > former allies) constitute a greater, lesser, or equivalent level of effort > compared to the Tet offensive killings in Hue? > > Robert A. Mosher >